Derivatives, Limits, Sums and Integrals
Derivatives, Limits, Sums and Integrals
The expressions are obtained in \(\LaTeX\) by typing
\frac{du}{dt} and \frac{d^2 u}{dx^2}
respectively. The mathematical symbol \(\partial\) is produced using \partial. Thus the Heat Equation
is obtained in LaTeX by typing
\[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial t}
= h^2 \left( \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2}
+ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2}
+ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial z^2} \right) \]
To obtain mathematical expressions such as
in displayed equations we type \lim_{x \to +\infty}, \inf_{x > s} and \sup_K respectively. Thus to obtain
(in \(\LaTeX\)) we type
\[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{3x^2 +7x^3}{x^2 +5x^4} = 3.\]
Added by Goldman2000@126:-------------------------
To compulsively display "u \to \infty" under the limit,
To compulsively display "u \to \infty" under the limit,
we type in LaTeX
\frac{1}{\lim_{u \rightarrow \infty}}, \frac{1}{\lim\limits_{u \rightarrow \infty}} or
\frac{1}{ \displaystyle \lim_{u \rightarrow \infty}} respectively.
Ended by Goldman2000@126: -------------------------
To obtain a summation sign such as
we type \sum_{i=1}^{2n}. Thus $ \sum\limits_{k=1}^n k^2 = \frac{1}{2} n (n+1)$is obtained by typing
\[ \sum_{k=1}^n k^2 = \frac{1}{2} n (n+1).\]
We now discuss how to obtain integrals in mathematical documents. A typical integral is the following:
This is typeset using
\[ \int_a^b f(x)\,dx.\]
The integral sign \(\int\) is typeset using the control sequence \int, and the limits of integration (in this case a and b are treated as a subscript and a superscript on the integral sign.
Most integrals occurring in mathematical documents begin with an integral sign and contain one or more instances of d followed by another (Latin or Greek) letter, as in dx, dyand dt. To obtain the correct appearance one should put extra space before the d, using \,. Thus
and
are obtained by typing
\[ \int_0^{+\infty} x^n e^{-x} \,dx = n!.\]
\[ \int \cos \theta \,d\theta = \sin \theta.\]
\[ \int_{x^2 + y^2 \leq R^2} f(x,y)\,dx\,dy
= \int_{\theta=0}^{2\pi} \int_{r=0}^R
f(r\cos\theta,r\sin\theta) r\,dr\,d\theta.\]
and
\[ \int_0^R \frac{2x\,dx}{1+x^2} = \log(1+R^2).\]
respectively.
In some multiple integrals (i.e., integrals containing more than one integral sign) one finds that LaTeX puts too much space between the integral signs. The way to improve the appearance of of the integral is to use the control sequence ! to remove a thin strip of unwanted space. Thus, for example, the multiple integral
is obtained by typing
\[ \int_0^1 \! \int_0^1 x^2 y^2\,dx\,dy.\]
Had we typed
\[ \int_0^1 \int_0^1 x^2 y^2\,dx\,dy.\]
we would have obtained
A particularly noteworthy example comes when we are typesetting a multiple integral such as
Here we use ! three times to obtain suitable spacing between the integral signs. We typeset this integral using
\[ \int \!\!\! \int_D f(x,y)\,dx\,dy.\]
Had we typed
\[ \int \int_D f(x,y)\,dx\,dy.\]
we would have obtained
The following (reasonably complicated) passage exhibits a number of the features which we have been discussing:
One would typeset this in \(\LaTeX\) by typing In non-relativistic wave mechanics, the wave function \(\psi(\mathbf{r},t)\) of a particle satisfies the
\emph{Schr"{o}dinger Wave Equation}
It is customary to normalize the wave equation by demanding that
A simple calculation using the Schr"{o}dinger wave equation shows that
and hence
for all times~\(t\). If we normalize the wave function in this way then, for any (measurable) subset~\(V\) of \(\textbf{R}^3\) and time~\(t\),
represents the probability that the particle is to be found within the region~\(V\) at time~\(t\).
One would typeset this in LaTeX by typing In non-relativistic wave mechanics, the wave function
$\psi(\mathbf{r},t)$ of a particle satisfies the
\emph{Schr\"{o}dinger Wave Equation}
\[ i\hbar\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}
= \frac{-\hbar^2}{2m} \left(
\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}
+ \frac{\partial^2}{\partial y^2}
+ \frac{\partial^2}{\partial z^2}
\right) \psi + V \psi.\]
It is customary to normalize the wave equation by
demanding that
\[ \int \!\!\! \int \!\!\! \int_{\textbf{R}^3}
\left| \psi(\mathbf{r},0) \right|^2\,dx\,dy\,dz = 1.\]
A simple calculation using the Schr\"{o}dinger wave
equation shows that
\[ \frac{d}{dt} \int \!\!\! \int \!\!\! \int_{\textbf{R}^3}
\left| \psi(\mathbf{r},t) \right|^2\,dx\,dy\,dz = 0,\]
and hence
\[ \int \!\!\! \int \!\!\! \int_{\textbf{R}^3}
\left| \psi(\mathbf{r},t) \right|^2\,dx\,dy\,dz = 1\]
for all times~$t$. If we normalize the wave function in this
way then, for any (measurable) subset~$V$ of $\textbf{R}^3$
and time~$t$,
\[ \int \!\!\! \int \!\!\! \int_V
\left| \psi(\mathbf{r},t) \right|^2\,dx\,dy\,dz\]
represents the probability that the particle is to be found
within the region~$V$ at time~$t$.
